Albert Barnes Commentary Romans 4:9

"Is this blessing then pronounced upon the circumcision, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say, To Abraham his faith was reckoned for righteousness." — Romans 4:9 (ASV)

The question now arises (and so on). The apostle has prepared the way for an examination of whether this blessing came in consequence of obedience to the law, or whether it was without obedience to the law.

Having shown that Abraham was justified by faith, in accordance with the doctrine he was defending, the only remaining question was whether this justification occurred after he was circumcised or before; that is, whether it was in consequence of his circumcision or not.

If it was after his circumcision, the Jew might still maintain that justification was by complying with the works of the law. However, if it was before his circumcision, the apostle's point would be established: that justification was without the works of the law.

Furthermore, if Abraham was justified by faith before he was circumcised, then this provides an instance of justification and acceptance without conformity to the Jewish law. And if the father of the Jewish nation was so justified and regarded as a friend of God without being circumcised—that is, in the condition in which the Gentile world then was—then it would follow that the Gentiles might be justified in a similar way now.

Therefore, it would not be departing from the spirit of the Old Testament itself to maintain, as the apostle had done (Romans 3), that the Gentiles who had not been circumcised might obtain the favor of God just as the Jew could. This means that justification is independent of circumcision and might be extended to all people.

This blessedness refers to this happy state or condition: the state of being justified by God and of being regarded as His friends. This is the sum of all blessedness, the only state that can truly be pronounced happy.

Upon the circumcision only: This refers to the Jews alone, as they maintained.

Or upon the uncircumcision also: This refers to the Gentiles who believed, as the apostle maintained.

For we say: This is something we all admit; it is a conceded point. It was the doctrine of the apostle as well as of the Jews, and as much theirs as his. With this, then, as a conceded point, what is the fair inference to be drawn from it?