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They asked him, "Why then did Moses command us to give her a bill of divorce, and divorce her?"
Verse Takeaways
1
A Twisted Question
The Pharisees intentionally misrepresent the Law of Moses. Commentators unanimously point out that Moses never commanded divorce. He only permitted and regulated it. The Pharisees frame it as a command to create a "gotcha" moment, hoping to trap Jesus into contradicting the revered Lawgiver.
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Matthew
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8
18th Century
Presbyterian
Why did Moses, etc. To this they objected that Moses had allowed such divorces (Deuteronomy 24:1), and if he had allo…
19th Century
Anglican
They say to him — The question apparently comes from the advocates of the laxer school. They fell back from what would seem to the…
Baptist
Every reader of the passage in the books of Moses referred to here will be struck by the Pharisees’ unfair interpretation of it. In Deuteronomy 24:…
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The Pharisees refer to Dt 24:1–4, which they interpret to mean something like this: “If a man takes a wife... and she does not find favor in his ey…
16th Century
Protestant
Why then did Moses order?597 They had thought of this slander, if Christ, as was more probable, should demand that a proper cau…
17th Century
Reformed Baptist
They say to him That is the Pharisees, who object the law of Moses to him, hoping hereby to ensnare him, and expose him t…
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The Pharisees were eager to draw something from Jesus that they could portray as contrary to the law of Moses. Cases about marriage have been numer…
13th Century
Catholic
In this passage, it was shown how one comes to eternal life by the common way. Here, He teaches how one comes by the way of perfection. This way of…
